Coursework Assessment 3

Instructions to students
You should take note of the following instructions on the submission of your Coursework
Assessment 3 on Topic 6 to Topic 8
Answer ALL Objective Test Questions, True or False Questions and A Quiz
Section A: 12 questions each worth 0.5%, total marks 6%
1. In a system of budgetary planning and control, the control processes that form the key elements
are:
A Developing plans to achieve objectives
B Communicating information about proposed plans
C Motivating people to build budgetary slack
D Reporting the actual performance against budget
Which of the above statement is incorrect?
2. The budgetary control report is very useful in budgetary control system. Which of the following
statement is incorrect?
A The control report covers both operating and cash budgets.
B The report shows the variances of actual results against budget plan.
C The report handles significant variances by highlighting those areas that need to be addressed
to.
D The content of report should be comprehensive so that it could include all areas that the
recipients of the report can take action without delay.
3. Zero-base budgeting is an approach to planning and decision-making, which reverses the
working process of traditional budgeting. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A Every line item of the budget under zero-base budget will be scrutinized, rather than only
changes.
B Zero-base budgeting does not reject the traditional view of annual budget as an incremental
process that takes into account current expenditure plus an estimate of next year’s
expenditure to arrive at the next budget.
C The major problem of zero-base budgeting is that it is very time-consuming if an
organization fully applies in its annual budget exercise.
D The application of zero-base budgeting in NPO depends on management’s attitudes towards
the service and funding sources.
4. The Balanced Scorecard (BSC) is a set of performance measures constructed for four dimensions
of performance. Which of the following statement is correct?
A The BSC is a management tool that addresses the perspective of customer, financial, internal
business process and life-long learning.
B The BSC is a tool for strategy description and execution: it helps describe a strategy, focuses
planning on what matters, and execute the plan finally.
C The BSC reinforces the idea of balance: it promotes to use the lagging and leading indicators
and performance measures both externally and internally.
D The BSC is a tool that not only provides performance measurements, but also helps NPO
identify its weaknesses.
5. There are several stages of the implementation of the BSC in an NPO. Which of the following
statements are correct?
(i) A revisit of both the mission and vision of the NPO is to get a basis for developing
strategies.
(ii) Conducting a SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats) analysis helps
the NPO have knowledge about internal operations and external influences.
(iii) A strategy map is used and captures ‘buckets’ of ideas called strategic themes.
A (i) and (ii) only
B (ii) and (iii) only
C (i) and (iii) only
D (i), (ii) and (iii)
6. To enable the BSC into practice, an NPO has to do the following:
(i) Requiring to invest substantial time, energy, and talent up-front to make it work well
(ii) Requiring the NPO board and management to have a firm commitment to the effort on it
(iii) Appointing someone who is willing to be in charge of creating and maintaining BSC
(iv) Building the scorecard categories to match what is in the performance indicators
A (i) and (ii) only
B (i), (ii) and (iv) only
C (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
D All of the above
7. There are many approaches to the use of non-financial performance measures. Which of the
following statement is incorrect for “3Es”?
A The 3Es is always used in conjunction with “Value for Money” to assess the performance of
NPOs.
B NPOs operate with restricted resources and must be able to achieve their goals effectively
with a limited budget.
C The effectiveness is concerned with the achievement of outcomes and focusing upon the
organization’s goals.
D Efficiency measures look at the amount of resources used to achieve inputs.
8. The basic principles of fund development are very important in fund development. Which of the
following statements are correct?
(i) It is the job of NPO to nurture a culture of philanthropy in its organization
(ii) Building a donor-centered organization is a fundamental block of fund development
(iii) NPO needs to engage volunteers as they are donors as well
(iv) We need to solicit everyone no matter whether he/she knows our organization well
A (i), (ii) and (iii)
B (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C (i), (ii) and (iv)
D All of the above
9. We need to develop and foster the four relationships in fund development. Which of the
following statement is incorrect?
A. NPO needs to build an infrastructure that produces a healthy and smart organization
B. NPO helps volunteers engage in projects that meet their personal aspirations and needs
C. NPO uses strategic planning to ensure goals and objectives meeting community needs
D. NPO develops and strengthens connections with individuals and groups to product loyalty
10. NPO needs to carry out the following actions to build an effective fund development in the
organization. Which of the following is incorrect?
A Help the NPO board and staff to see the links between fund development and other functions
B Make sure the staff who involve in fund-raising understand the objectives of fund-raising
programmes
C Ignore the staff thoughts about programme quality and community perception
D Show all staff who involve in fund development and the roles that they play for
11. The use of fund sources of public or statutory body has certain disadvantages. Which statement is
incorrect?
A The fund grant normally has a clear objective to NPO and requires the latter to observe
strictly
B NPO is unable to provide its budget in advance because it cannot follow the matching
concept exactly according to the defined timeframe
C NPO may have to find alternative fund source to top-up the unexpected cost increase during
the project’s interval period
D NPO needs to submit the periodical progress reports and the annual audited financial
statements for monitoring of its finances and performance
12. Foundation or Endowment fund provides a reliable source of fund support to NPO particularly
when it is unable to obtain government funds for its projects. Which statement is correct?
A NPO does not need to find out what exactly the fund sources that it looks for
B There is no need for NPO to figure out what would be the arrangements if the fund grant
comes to the projects end
C If NPO’s project could create the societal impact; it is better to apply for fund grant that
favours its application
D NPO does not require having a proven track record of serving the target clients for projects in
which it applies for fund grant with Foundation or Endowment fund
Section B: 8 questions each worth 0.5%, total marks 4%
Write (T) for True or (F) for False for each question
13. Small variances under budgetary control system are obviously to be expected and do not require
special attention unless they fall out of the defined control bands.
14. Budgetary slack is a common human behaviour not to build an allowance in the budget to
achieve the particular goals.
15. The relationship of philanthropy and fund development is that fund development helps engage
people in philanthropy and is the essential partner of philanthropy.
16. The future change in fund development is that the corporate entity’s “charity giving” would be
history.
17. NPOs who substantially receive government grants from HKSAR Government do not need to
rethink their position strategically and develop appropriate fund development because the latter
always supports NPOs’ services without the change of its policy and attitude.
f18. In the organizational performance and measurement, donors always tend to use value for money
concept measure the funds/grants given to the NPO.
19. In any practical application on the BSC, NPO aims at collecting absolute figure or percentage
for analysis, as it does not need to define the trend of what it is doing or to find out the success
of lying on the same pace or trend.
20. The BSC is not a difficult management tool for NPO to master and the benefits are substantial
and demonstrable, but the major obstacle lies in people’s attitude or behaviour of how to
practice the tool correctly.
Section C: A Quiz: 4%
A Quiz (Word limit: 150)
Define what do you understand of non-financial performance measures (NFPM). Do you think
NFPM is useful to supplement financial performance measures in the organizational performance?
(In your answer, you can agree, disagree or neutral to the argument set for the quiz.)
Sociology questions and answers
1.      Contemporary understandings of sociology typically define it as: select one
a.       The biological study of human societies
b.      The use of psychological approaches to understand society
c.       The systematic study of society and social structure
d.      A and B
e.       None of the above
2.      Which of the following individuals is not considered a classical sociologist
a.       B.F Skinner
b.      Emile Durkheim
c.       Max Weber
d.      Karl Max
3.      The sociological perspective which suggests that social sciences should replicate the natural sciences in their approach is described as:
a.       Interpretive
b.      Positivism
c.       Micro
d.      Systematic
e.       Post modern
4.      What types of educational institutions in Australia was sociology most likely to be found within during the 1970s and 1980s?
a.       older elite institutions
b.      technical colleges
c.       universities established in the 1960s
d.      private primary schools
e.       government high schools
5.      What is the crucial historical event that many sociologists argue is associated with the origin of democracy and nationalism?
a.       Spanish flu
b.      World war two
c.       Vietnam war
d.      French revolution
e.       Crusades of the holy land
6.      Which of the following is not a significant advantage of the micro perspective to sociological research?
a.       Understanding of day to day experiences
b.      Understanding of small groups and their use of language
c.       Understanding of a particular social situation
d.      Understanding of large scale social processes
e.       Understanding of the reproduction of culture
7.      What type of power did the classical sociologist max weber argue came to the fore with the advent of modernity?
a.       Charismatic
b.      Rational and bureaucratic
c.       Authoritarian
d.      Network sovereign
8.      Which of the following best characterizes globalization theories relating to indigenization and glocalization?
a.       Standardization, uniformity, inauthentic
b.      Cultural imperialism, Americanization, false consciousness
c.       Traditional. Primordial, unchanging
d.      Hybridity, specific, meaningful
9.      Samuel P. Huntington is associated with which of the following perspectives on globalization
a.       Cultural imperialism
b.      Clash of civilizations
c.       World systems theory
d.      McDonaldisation
10.  Which of the following classes is said by Karl Marx to be the exploited class in capitalist societies?
a.       Intelligentsia
b.      Proletariat (working class)
c.       Aristocracy
d.      Middle class
e.       Bourgeoisie (capitalists)
11.  Hegemony in contemporary societies  is best described as:
a.       Making profits by any means possible
b.      Disagreements and conflicts about core morals and beliefs in society
c.       Winning the consent of ‘the people’ to their own subordination
d.      Using direct coercion and the threat of violence to establish social order
e.       Creating an open and competitive economic marketplace
12.  As outlined in the social class lecture slides (with audio), R.W. Connell’s study of Adelaide newspapers revealed that:
a.       Blue-collar workers were generally over-represented
b.      White-collar workers were generally over-represented
c.       White-collar workers were mostly covered favorably
d.      Blue-collar workers were most covered favorably
e.       Both B and C
13.  Ideology as used in the lecture slide with audio on social class for this course is most accurately defined as:
a.       Values, beliefs and attitudes
b.      Left-wing propaganda
c.       Right-wing propaganda
d.      Biological drives
e.       Instinctual drives
14.  The theorist associated with the idea of cultural capital is:
a.       Max Weber
b.      Emile Durkheim
c.       Pierre Bourdieu
d.      Erving Goffman
15.  According to Erving Goffman, gender portrayals in media advertisements;
a.       Reflect myths about biological differences between the sexes
b.      Facilitate socialization on several levels
c.       Convey cultural beliefs of men and women in subtle ways
d.      B and C
e.       All the above
16.  The gender displays of Lady Ga Ga can be used to illustrate the point that gender is:
a.       A binary opposition similar to that in pre-industrial societies
b.      A symbolic construct with unchanging boundaries
c.       A social construct with increasingly flexible boundaries
d.      Determined forever by childhood socialization
e.       A myth propagated by women of high socio-economic status
17.  The theorist associated with the theory of hegemonic masculinity is:
a.       Max Weber
b.      Emile Durkheim
c.       R.W (Raewyn) Connell
d.      Pierre Bourdieu
18.  Ethnicity is of interest to sociologists because:
a.       Cultural traits are determined by biology
b.      Modern society is based on the ideal of cultural uniformity
c.       Genetic difference greatly influences social behavior
d.      B and C
e.       None of the above
19.  Multiculturalism as a government policy is best defined as:
a.       Appreciation of diversity of ethnic cultures and traditions within the nation
b.      Genocide of a people because of the color of their skin
c.       The integration of ethnic minorities into the dominant culture
d.      An inability to understand the validity of integrity of cultures other than one’s own
20.  The concept of ‘new racism’ is characterized by the idea that
a.       Affirmative action and targeted welfare policies are discriminatory
b.      Ethnic diversity and a sense of international citizenship should be promoted
c.       Biological and racial superiority of whites is inevitable
d.      The policy of multiculturalism should be supported


Finance Questions and Answers


Questions and Answers
Get Answers Now at a 30% discount

1. What are the primary limitations of ratio analysis as a technique of financial statement analysis?
2. What is the major limitation of the current ratio as a measure of a firm’s liquidity? How may this limitation be overcome?
3. What problems may be indicated by an average collection period that is substantially above or below the industry average?
4. What problems may be indicated by an inventory turnover ratio that is substantially above or below the industry average?
5. What are the three most important determinants of a firm’s return on stock- holders’ equity?
 6. How can inflation affect the comparability of financial ratios between firms?
 7. The Farmers State Bank recently has been earning an “above average” (compared to the overall banking industry) return on total assets of 1.50 percent. The bank’s return on common equity is only 12 percent, compared with an industry average of 15 percent.
a. What reasons can you give for the bank’s lower turn on common equity?
b. What impact do you think this performance by the bank is having on the value of its debt and equity securities?
8. Vanity Press, Inc., has annual credit sales of $1.6 million and a gross profit margin of 35 percent.
a. If the firm wishes to maintain an average collection period of 50 days, what level of accounts receivable should it carry? (Assume a 365-day year.)
b. The inventory turnover for this industry averages six times. If all of Vanity’s sales are on credit, what average level of inventory should the firm maintain to achieve the same inventory turnover figure as the industry?
9. Clovis Industries had sales in 2013 of $40 million, 20 percent of which were cash. If Clovis normally carries 45 days of credit sales in accounts receivable, what are its average accounts receivable balances? (Assume a 365-day year.)
10. The Sooner Equipment Company has total assets of $100 million. Of this total, $40 million was financed with common equity and $60 million with debt (both long- and short-term). Its average accounts receivable balance is $20 million, and this represents an 80-day average collection period. Sooner believes it can reduce its average col- lection period from 80 to 60 days without affecting sales or the dollar amount of net income after taxes (currently $5 million). What will be the effect of this action on Sooner’s return on investment and its return on stockholders’ equity if the funds received by reducing the average collection period are used to buy back its common stock at book value? What impact will this action have on Sooner’s debt ratio?

Common College Application Essay Topics and How to Answer Them

Common College Application Essay Topics and How to Answer Them

Wondering what essay prompts you might see on your college applications? From The Common Application to individual school applications, we’ve got you covered.
The college essay is your opportunity to show admissions officers who you are apart from your grades and test scores (and to distinguish yourself from the rest of a very talented applicant pool).
brainstorming college application essay topics

2016-17 Common App Essays

Nearly 700 colleges accept the The Common Application, which makes it easy to apply to multiple schools with just one form. If you are using the Common App to apply for college admission in 2016, you will have 250–650 words to respond to ONE of the following prompts:
  1. Some students have a background, identity, interest, or talent that is so meaningful they believe their application would be incomplete without it. If this sounds like you, then please share your story.
  2. The lessons we take from failure can be fundamental to later success. Recount an incident or time when you experienced failure. How did it affect you, and what did you learn from the experience?
  3. Reflect on a time when you challenged a belief or idea. What prompted you to act? Would you make the same decision again?
  4. Describe a problem you've solved or a problem you'd like to solve. It can be an intellectual challenge, a research query, an ethical dilemma—anything that is of personal importance, no matter the scale. Explain its significance to you and what steps you took or could be taken to identify a solution.
  5. Discuss an accomplishment or event, formal or informal, that marked your transition from childhood to adulthood within your culture, community, or family.

Tackling the Common App Essay Prompts

Prompt #1: Share your story.

Answer this prompt by reflecting on a hobby, facet of your personality, or experience that is genuinely meaningful and unique to you. Admissions officers want to feel connected to you and an honest, personal statement about who you are draws them in. Your love of superheroes, baking chops, or family history are all fair game if you can tie it back to who you are or what you believe in. Avoid a rehash of the accomplishments on your high school resume and choose something that the admissions committee will not discover when reading the rest of your application.

Prompt #2: Learning from failure.

You're trying to show colleges your best self, so it might seem counterintuitive to willingly acknowledge a time you failed. But overcoming challenges demonstrates courage, grit, and perseverance! That’s why the last piece of this prompt is essential. The obstacle you write about can be large or small, but you must show the admissions committee how your perspective changed as a result.

Prompt #3: Challenging a belief.

Your answer to this question could focus on a time you stood up to others or an experience when your own preconceived view was challenged. Choose this prompt if you have a relevant—and specific!—experience to recount (and reflect on). A vague essay about a hot button issue doesn’t tell the admissions committee anything useful about YOU.

Prompt #4: Solving a problem.

This essay is designed to get at the heart of how you think and what makes you tick. Present a situation or quandary and show steps toward the solution. Admissions officers want insight into your thought process and the issues you grapple with, so explain how you became aware of the dilemma and how you tackled solving it. Don’t forget to explain why the problem is important to you!

Prompt #5: Transition from childhood to adulthood.

Just like Prompt #2, the accomplishment or event you write about can be anything from a major milestone to a smaller moment. Describe the event that shaped you but take care to also show what you learned or how you changed. Colleges are looking for a sense of maturity and introspection—pinpoint the transformation and demonstrate your personal growth. 

More College Essay Topics

Individual schools sometimes require supplemental essays. Here are a few popular application essay topics and some tips for how to approach them:

Describe a person you admire.

Avoid the urge to pen an ode to a beloved figure like Gandhi or Abraham Lincoln. The admissions committee doesn't need to be convinced they are impressive people. Focus on yourself: Choose someone who has actually caused you to change your behavior or your worldview, and write about how this person influenced you.

Why do you want to attend this school?

Be honest and specific when you respond to this question. Avoid generalities like "to get a good liberal arts education” or “to develop career skills," and use details that show your interests: "I'm an aspiring doctor and your science department has a terrific reputation." Colleges are more likely to admit students who can articulate specific reasons why the school is a good fit for them beyond its reputation or ranking on any list. Use the college's website and literature to do your research about programs, professors, and other opportunities that appeal to you.

What is a book you love?

Your answer should not be a book report. Don't just summarize the plot; detail why you enjoyed this particular text and what it meant to you. What does your favorite book reveal about you? How do you identify with it, and how has it become personal to you?
Again, be honest in answering this question—don't choose a classic from your literature class or a piece of philosophy just because you think it will make you seem smarter. Writing fluently and passionately about a book close to you is always better than writing shakily or generally about a book that doesn't inspire you.

What is an extracurricular activity that has been meaningful to you?

Avoid slipping into clichés or generalities. Take this opportunity to really examine an experience that taught you something you didn't previously know about yourself, got you out of your comfort zone, or forced you to grow. Sometimes it's better to write about something that was hard for you because you learned something than it is to write about something that was easy for you because you think it sounds impressive. As with all essay questions, the most important thing is to tell a great story: how you discovered this activity, what drew you to it, and what it's shown you about yourself.
Check out our video on perfecting your college essay:
Perfect your college essay video

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